By Diogenes ( articles ) | Aug 02, 2005
Suppose an American bishop wrote:
If the person intends to promote the killing of innocent life, s/he would be guilty of such sinful cooperation.... But this seems unlikely as a general rule. Should every Catholic politician who has voted for an unjust law favoring abortion be judged to have this intention? I hope not.
Would you be tempted to write to the Congregation for the Doctrine of the Faith, and ask for a correction/clarification of that remark?
Correction: In an earlier version of this comment, I included another quotation, which I mistakenly attributed to the same episcopal author. In fact, the bishop in question was quoting from a letter sent by leading Democrats in Congress; the sentiments expressed-- which were clearly at variance with Vatican statements on the same topic-- were not his own. My apologies for that error, and thanks to the alert readers (below) who brought it to my attention.
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