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question for today

By Diogenes (articles ) | Apr 27, 2010

Why is it so terribly wrong to suggest that there might be a connection between sexual abuse and homosexuality, but perfectly acceptable to say that the sex-abuse crisis shows the need to reconsider clerical celibacy and other aspects of Church teaching regarding sexuality

Or to put it differently, why is it outrageous to suggest that a homosexual is more likely to molest an adolescent boy, but logical to suggest that a celibate is? 

We know something about a homosexual: he likes boys. We know something about a celibate: he is continent. So of the two men-- one who likes boys, the other who controls himself-- which is more likely to molest boys?

Take your time. I know this is a tough one.

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Show 3 Comments? (Hidden)Hide Comments
  • Posted by: Ken_H - Apr. 28, 2010 8:48 AM ET USA

    And is there really a Bishop name "Pat Power"?

  • Posted by: Ken_H - Apr. 28, 2010 8:47 AM ET USA

    It IS a tough one! So tough, in fact, that anyone in the media who had to consider such weighty thoughts probably wouldn't have time to make their print or broadcast deadline. Too bad for that...

  • Posted by: BobJ70777069 - Apr. 27, 2010 9:07 PM ET USA

    How typical of the politically-correct crowd - deny what is obvious to anyone with a brain. To quote the movie: "Who are you going to believe, me or your lying eyes?"

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