question for today

By Diogenes ( articles ) | Apr 27, 2010

Why is it so terribly wrong to suggest that there might be a connection between sexual abuse and homosexuality, but perfectly acceptable to say that the sex-abuse crisis shows the need to reconsider clerical celibacy and other aspects of Church teaching regarding sexuality? 

Or to put it differently, why is it outrageous to suggest that a homosexual is more likely to molest an adolescent boy, but logical to suggest that a celibate is? 

We know something about a homosexual: he likes boys. We know something about a celibate: he is continent. So of the two men-- one who likes boys, the other who controls himself-- which is more likely to molest boys?

Take your time. I know this is a tough one.